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Re: Venus phase correction
From: Robert Bernecky
Date: 2018 Sep 23, 10:56 -0700

Hi Kermit,

I was not aware of George's result - it would have saved me some time.

I assume it is clear (at least to you, if not the casual reader) that

(1-k) = (1-cos i)/2 = sin² i/2

so George's formula is the same as the one I wrote-up.

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